I don't think this is quite right. Here is the right statement: let $E_1, ..., E_g$ be the tails, with maps $q_i: E_i longrightarrow B$. Then
$pi_* omega_{C/B} = bigoplus (q_i)_* omega_{E_i/B}$.
So, if your tails don't vary with B, this bundle is trivial.
Explanation: $omega_{C/B}$ can be described explicitly: a section of $omega_{C/B}$ is a one-form on each component of $C$, with simple poles at the nodes of $C$, so that at every node the residues of the form on the two components match.
Now, on a curve of genus $1$, a one-form with only a single simple pole, must in fact have no poles. So the sections of $omega_{C/B}$, restricted to the $E_i$, are sections of $omega_{E_i/B}$. Moreover, the sections of $omega_{C/B}$ restricted to the rational components are one-forms with no poles, and are hence $0$. So to give a section of $omega_{C/B}$ is simply to give a section of $omega_{E_i/B}$ on each $E_i$. QED.
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