Friday, 27 December 2013

gn.general topology - Can topologies induce a metric?

Let {X,T} be a topology, T the set of open subsets of X.




Definition: Three points x, y, z of X are in relation N (Nxyz, read "x is nearer to y than to z") iff



  1. there is a basis B of T and b in B such that x and y are in b but z is not and

  2. there is no basis C of T and c in C such that x and z are in c but not y.


For some topologies there are no points x, y, z in relation N, for example if T = {Ø,X} or T = P(X), but for others there are (e.g. for ones induced by a metric [my claim]).




Definition: A topology has property M1 iff



(x)(y) ((z) (z ≠ x & z ≠ y) → Nxyz) → x = y



(This is an analogue of d(xy) = 0 → x = y, the best one I can imagine).




Definition: A topology has property M2 iff



(x)(y)(z) Nxyz & Nyzx → Nzyx



(This is a kind of an analogue of d(xy) = d(yx), the best one I can imagine)




First (bunch of) question(s):



  1. Properties M1 and M2 do not capture the whole of the corresponding conditions of a metric. Can anyone figure out "better" definitions (e.g. an analogon of x = y → d(xy) = 0)?


  2. Can anyone figure out a property M3 that is an analogue of the triangle equality?


If it can be shown that no such property M3 is definable, the following becomes obsolete.



If such a definition can be made, we define:




Definition: A topology has property M (read "induces a metric") iff it has properties M1, M2, M3.




Second question:



Which topologies have property M, i.e. induce a metric? Are these "accidentally" exactly those that are induced by a metric?

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